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puntz
3rd July 2004, 11:51 AM
When calculating the win and place percentages,
the percentage for the place sum, is the 1st considered as the place to, or just 2nd and 3rd ?

For example,
Horses total races is 10.
From 10 races it has had 2 wins.
So it's win strike rate is 20 %.
But from it's 2nd and 3rd placings it had
1 2nd and 2 3rd's
So then that makes it a 30% palce strike rate.

OR
is it 2 win's, 1 2nd, and 2 3rd's
Total of 5 "placings",therefore 50% Place strike rate ?

Mark
3rd July 2004, 12:08 PM
It's 50% Pete, total placings include wins.

:smile:

Chrome Prince
3rd July 2004, 02:05 PM
Mark is right puntz, but beware - some publications don't count wins as placings, ridiculous when you get paid a place dividend if it wins!

puntz
3rd July 2004, 02:24 PM
Thanks.
If anyone uses the win/place percentages as part of their overall selection method and have a data base, could you look at the Win Strike Rate Etc. if the Place percenatage calculation was not including the number of 1st's?
So it becomes the following method of Place percent calculation:

Horses total races is 10.
From 10 races it has had 2 wins.
So it's win strike rate is 20 %.
But from it's 2nd and 3rd placings it had
1 2nd and 2 3rd's
So then that makes it a 30% palce strike rate.

Just curios.

Chrome Prince
3rd July 2004, 03:27 PM
puntz,

Have a look at the thread in this forum "To Chrome Prince"

Whilst it deals with API, the fundamentals are the same and so is the outcome.

puntz
3rd July 2004, 08:31 PM
Thanks CP.

Can a search be performed but instead of 1st top selection, use the top 3 selections,and obtain a strike rate ?
Then obtain a strike rate with the number of races between that are no-bet ?
The only filter at this stage is the price of the fav.
So if the fav. is showing 2.00, it's a no bet.
Ofcourse this can be varied,but it's starting point.