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Duritz 11th January 2005 09:32 AM

Strike Rates!
 
Hey systems punters - can one of you answer a question for me? It's been bugging me for quite some time. How do you work out the probability of a given run of outs of a system based on it's strike rate, and therefore what is a reasonable bank to have to support any potential run of outs for a given method?

For example, say you've got a method with a 20% strike rate. What is the % stake of your bank you should use (level stakes) whereby any reasonable run of outs can be endured? And what runs of outs can one expect with a 20% strike rate? Or 40%? Or 10%?

What's the calculation punters?!

Your help appreciated.
Duritz

La Mer 11th January 2005 09:58 AM

Quote:
Originally Posted by Duritz
For example, say you've got a method with a 20% strike rate. What is the % stake of your bank you should use (level stakes) whereby any reasonable run of outs can be endured? And what runs of outs can one expect with a 20% strike rate? Or 40%? Or 10%? Duritz


The answer is not as simple as stating with a 20% strike-rate there is an expectation of X being the longest run of outs. It really depends on the number 'events' that the 20% strike-rate is being tested on. For example, there is a 56% expectation of a longest run of outs in any 100 'events' with a 20% strike-rate, but over 1000 'events' there is a 52% expectation of a longest run of outs of 25. Over 10,000 there is a 55% expectation of a run of outs of 35.

Of course there would be greater expectations of runs of outs of lesser amounts.

darkydog2002 11th January 2005 12:58 PM

NEIL HAS SOMETHING ON IT.
 
Have a look at the thread PROPUNTERS.
I believe Neil has something there on losing runs.
Cheers.
darky.

BJ 11th January 2005 01:32 PM

Multiply percentage....
 
If you are losing 50%, your chance of losing 10 in a row is:
1/(.5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * .5) = 1 in 1024.

If you are winning 20% and losing 80%, your chances of losing 10 in a row is:
1/(.8 * .8 * .8 * .8 * .8 * .8 * .8 * .8 * .8 * .8) = 1 in 9.3

You cannot workout a longest losing run, because there is no such thing. Whilst there is a chance of losing the next race, the figure is infinate.

KennyVictor 11th January 2005 01:49 PM

And how meaningful is this "Longest run of outs" anyway? If you calculate your maximum run of losses is likely to be 20 and you give yourself a safety net by betting a twenty-fifth of your bank - what happens when you have a run of 15 losses a win or two and another 15 losses? Your bank is still going to be caput.
When I computer model my systems against past data I record the high point of my bank and the worst following low point and work out the equivalent number of bets I lost from my peak to my trough. I have no idea how you would work this out from a percentage strike rate though.

KV

system 11th January 2005 05:23 PM

mate with 20% strike rate i would suggest betting flat stake 1% of bank.

woof43 11th January 2005 07:28 PM

Losing runs
 
To find your longest losing run of losses to a 99% confidence level do as follows;

=sum(1-(Losing % ^(to the power of) N (N=number of Losses) this will provide a % when you get to 99% this should equate to your longest losing run

example win%= .092 Losing % .908

=sum(1-(.908^5losses)=.382
=sum(1-(.908^17losses)=.806

Cheers

Duritz 12th January 2005 12:56 PM

Thanks all, I really appreciate that.

Duritz.

Duritz 12th January 2005 01:00 PM

So using that formula, I can expect a run of outs of about 20? If I therefore bet 5% of the bank at some point I will do the bank, even if it is winning! perhaps I should take the advice and do the 1% thing.

system 12th January 2005 01:11 PM

tp start off with 1% is good at flat stake then down track you can have a look at staking plan,s or increasing bet % too say 2%


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