Quote:
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Originally Posted by crash
I'm not sure how to make sense of all that.
If there is:
1/2 chance of winning
1/2 chance of loosing
How can losing have: ' a greater chance in losing' [?]
and winning have: 'a better chance of winning' [?]
Both winning and losing chances in the above single $10 bet is [surely] identical isn't it?
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What I was trying to say, is compare the chance of winning and losing to the situation where you have the 2 X $5 dollar bets.
You said there were 3 outcomes possible.
"""Because by having 2 x $5 bets we have now created 3 possible outcomes.
1. a win with both the 1st and 2nd. $5 bets [bank $30]
2. a loss with both bets [bank $0]
3. a win with one bet and a loss with one bet [bank $15]"""""
Effectively that is 1/3 chances of losing.
Compare that to the single bet of 1/2 chances of losing.
There is also 1/3 chances of winning.
Compare that to the single bet of 1/2 chances of winning.
So 33% V 50% in both departments, showing that the single bet method, has a higher potential in BOTH win and loss strike rates.