23rd January 2008, 06:12 AM
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Suspended.
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Join Date: Jan 1970
Location: gippsland lakes/vic
Posts: 5,104
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Quote:
Originally Posted by King Cugat
if someone typed something on this site that nobody took offence to. Then it was sold to another site & for whatever reason someone in another country did take offence to it OR what was said was brought to be injust in another country and someone from this other country decided to take legal action. They claim in writing to have been to the 'other site' to find this piece of evidence & have never seen the original site that it was posted on, perhaps because it wasnt written in their language or whatever. Who would be held liable? The poster or the seller of information from one site to the other? Does the shoe fit the same foot all the time?
Crash your not listening to the question being asked. Its theirs to own we understand, there is no ignorance. They can sell ....sure
The question is >> re-printing words / Paragraphs / in full under someone elses name where its obvious its done so to mislead the public. Also should the name of the poster be carried over in the selling process if its to be re-used again with the intent of not adding any further information to it. Do you or do you not know the answer that question 100% correctly Crash? The question of being morally just to those that keep your site running is the next one after that
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I'm not dumb. I understood the question which I have answered twice. Problem is, some posters are having trouble understanding the broad significance contained in my simple answer, which I'm not going to repeat.
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