Hello all,
I wanted to make a profit of $100/day. I hadn't considered not making that on any given day so I guess it would actually be $100 per series of bets, if forced to carry over.
If I use darky's method, losses + target / odds I don't think the return is high enough. My outlay would then be the original $100 + the $80 following bet for a return of $200, $80 short of the target profit.(If that's right, remember no maths brain)
Now don't ask me which one the denominator is or even the name of the other one but I saw somewhere that if the odds are 25/10, you divide 10 by 25 and multiply by your target, but this doesn't take into account the outlay for this bet.
Party, your idea seems right but you got off to a bad start because I didn't explain that the target wasn't just $100 but $100 profit.
Disregarding the fact that you were given the wrong info to start with Party, how did you come to the figures on the, 'next target' line?
So at 2/1 to make the $100 profit I needed to outlay $100. Lose that and the next bet needs to profit by $200 (loss+target). Lose that and it's the target profit(100) + orignal loss(100) + last loss(????) etc.

target 1 = 100@ 2-1 lose $50
next target =100+100+50=250
target 2 = 250 @ 25-10 so next bet is $100

No matter what the odds are, how do I calculate the following bet ( taking into account the outlay for that bet ) to return my previous losses and my target profit?
I am starting to black out after all that and now I'm not sure what I wanted anymore. Does anyone know where I'm coming from or have I simply lost the plot? What am I missing?
Gnarkley