Would it stand to reason that odds on favourites are just as unsuccessful as evens and better favourites and therefore inherit the 70% failure rate?

This is a geuine question as I don't have any stats on the subject. Seemed logical to me. In the long term the success rate of favourites as a whole would have to apply to subsections or sample spaces.

If it doesn't, then I'd say we have an angle!

Placegetter