Hi Woof43,

I find this interesting.

How would you apply this to jockeys ?
Would you first have their starting price which you could convert into a probability e.g.
1/1 = 50% expected wins and then their actual win percentage at this price - say 20%,
then do the same for each of their starting prices or have I completely misunderstood what you are saying ?


[ This Message was edited by: Midas on 2004-11-19 04:29 ]

[ This Message was edited by: Midas on 2004-11-19 04:30 ]