I know this topic has been mentioned few time in this forum. I just want to know if whether my understanding is right. Can anyone please confirm on this ?

Here's the scenerio....

Parlay Formula: Any 2.
Cost $15 for $1 unit bet.

Results:
L1 - $1.20
L2 - $1.3
L3 - $1.5
L4 - unplace
L5 - $1.8
L6 - $1.2

L1 x L2 => $1.2 x $1.3 = $1.56
L1 x L3 => $1.2 x $1.5 = $1.80
L1 x L5 => $1.2 x $1.8 = $2.16
L1 x L6 => $1.2 x $1.2 = $1.44
L2 x L3 => $1.3 x $1.5 = $1.95
L2 x L5 => $1.3 x $1.8 = $2.34
L2 x L6 => $1.3 x $1.2 = $1.56
L3 x L5 => $1.5 x $1.8 = $2.70
L3 x L6 => $1.5 x $1.2 = $1.80
L5 x L6 => $1.8 x $1.2 = $2.16
total: $19.47
Did i miss anything ?

Tomo.
The formula is as set out by Shaun on the thread just under this one.Heading I think is parlay bets. Anyhow it is 60% of your starting figure with the result if any added onto the remaining 40%. Next bet is 60% of that total and so on. Include your stake when you add results to your remaining 40%.

Regards.
enjay

Thanks Enjay ...

was looking for that post before i posted this post. Must have overlooked :smile:

Hope I'm not telling my Granny how to "blow eggs" here, but the formula for "ANY @" from ANY number is as follows!!

multiply by the next number down and divide by 2,

i.e, for any 2 from 6,..... =6x5divided by 2, so.... 6x5 divided by 2 = 15.

BY the way the formula for any 3 from 6 = 6x by the next number down x by the next number down, divided by 3, 6x5x4 divided by 3, so 6x5x4= 120 divided by 3= 20

Hope I'm not boring anyone here????