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  #11  
Old 10th December 2008, 03:12 PM
mjh mjh is offline
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Thanks for all the info guys.

I'm glad I posted the question now.

How did you guys learn about this stuff?
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  #12  
Old 10th December 2008, 03:51 PM
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After 38yrs of punting a few things sank in, except how to get rich on the punt!
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  #13  
Old 11th December 2008, 02:06 AM
Bhagwan Bhagwan is offline
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Another way of converting percentages to price is...

1 divided by horses percentage.

e.g.
1 / 26% (press % key) = $3.85

Cheers.
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  #14  
Old 11th December 2008, 02:33 AM
Bhagwan Bhagwan is offline
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Another simple way of framing ones own market that can work well....

Get hold of any pre post market

Target the 6+ horses as mentioned in previous post.

Target the pre post price & multiply buy .90

e.g. Pre post $6.00 x .90 = 5.40 is now ones accessed price.

We now bet those horses which match our accessed price or more & delete those that don't.

Bet to price to a take out figure, say 5% of bank of $200.
e.g. $10 / $5.40 = O/L $1.85
If one hits say $10.00 div x 1.85 = Ret $18.51

Do the same for ones other selected contenders.

This can work well if there are not too many scratchings.

It is a quick simple way that can snag the odd juicy payer.

Cheers.
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  #15  
Old 14th December 2008, 07:25 PM
mjh mjh is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by crash
After 38yrs of punting a few things sank in, except how to get rich on the punt!
Perhaps that may take another 38 years Crash
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  #16  
Old 14th December 2008, 07:28 PM
mjh mjh is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bhagwan
Another way of converting percentages to price is...

1 divided by horses percentage.

e.g.
1 / 26% (press % key) = $3.85

Cheers.
Thanks for that.

The faster calculations can be done the better.

Perhaps an Excel spreadsheet might do that for me
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  #17  
Old 16th December 2008, 12:12 PM
Jack Jack is offline
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Hi Bhagwan,
Re your post 11/12/2008 eg "target prepost 6.00 x.90 = 5.40 is now ones assessed price" By mulitplying a figure less than 1 would be taking unders would it not? Or if the 6.00 was multiplied by 1.10 = 6.60 and this price could be obtained this would be overs would it not ? We need to be taking a standard overlay or greater to win in the long run. Have seen on this forum previously of prices being multiplied by .80 and others use .90 but have never understood why so what is the reasoning behind this ?

Regards Jack

==============
Using bold type throughout your post is shouting. Please do not shout. Moderator 3.

Last edited by Moderator 3 : 16th December 2008 at 08:15 PM.
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  #18  
Old 16th December 2008, 03:03 PM
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Quite simply Jack is that the rest of the field, say beyond 80%, consists of horses with long odds not worth considering. So often a price-line doesn't include all horses to save time. It might only include the top 5 in the market considering they win 80% of races.
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  #19  
Old 17th December 2008, 10:15 PM
Bhagwan Bhagwan is offline
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Hi Jack,
The method seems to work better this way rather than just taking the std. pre post price whereby many winners are missed.

If one were to use the std pre post price or increase the figure , one would expect to see a LOT.

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  #20  
Old 18th December 2008, 02:54 AM
Chrome Prince Chrome Prince is offline
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Another way of framing a more accurate market, is to take the prepost market and combine it with a tipsters poll.

The proviso is that it must cover at least ten individual tipsters.

Convert the prepost prices to percentages.
Allocate 3 points for a win tip, 2 points for a second place tip and 1 point for third place.

Add the points to the percentages and reframe the market to 100%.

So a $2.00 shot will most likely end up $1.80
a $5.00 shot will probably end up $4.50
But the other untipped horses will drift.

Just like the real thing...only crunchy

You then have a lay price and a back price before anybody else does

It will also identify when the prepost market is out of whack.
It's not always accurate, but it's far more accurate than potshot prepost
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